先用分割与中值定理说明弧长公式的来源,并从单位圆推出 arccos 的积分表示;再区分函数列的逐点收敛与一致收敛,用 x^n 说明两者不同,最后给出 Weierstrass M 判别法及幂级数在内闭区间上的一致收敛。
Arc Length, Pointwise and Uniform Convergence
Partitions and the mean value theorem explain where the arc length formula comes from, and the unit circle yields an integral representation of arccos. The lecture then separates pointwise from uniform convergence, uses x^n to show they differ, and proves the Weierstrass M-test together with uniform convergence of power series on compact subintervals.
后半讲为下一讲做好了准备。有了 Weierstrass M 判别法,就可以证明幂级数在收敛区间内闭一致收敛;而一致收敛正是逐项积分与逐项求导的前提。下一讲会证明:一致收敛的函数列,其积分收敛到极限函数的积分;在导数也一致收敛的额外条件下,导数同样可以交换次序。这两条结论把本节的技术条件变成了真正的运算规则。
Two strands
The previous lecture ended with the arc length formula as a definition. This lecture justifies it: why is arc length ∫f′2+g′2ds, and what does the unit circle give? The answer includes the classical integral representation of arccos.
The lecture then turns to a different subject: convergence of sequences of functions. A sequence of numbers has one notion of convergence; a sequence of functions has two:
Pointwise convergence: for each fixed x, the sequence fn(x) converges.
Uniform convergence: one N works for all x at once.
The difference looks technical but decides whether limits may be exchanged with integrals and derivatives. The main tool for detecting uniform convergence is the Weierstrass M-test.
Timeline
Time
Topic
0:00
Arc length: definition and justification via partitions, the mean value theorem, and Riemann sums
10:29
Example: γ(s)=(s,s2) on [0,1]
11:44
Example: the unit circle, giving arccosx=∫x11−s2ds
21:09
Differentiating an integral with the variable in the lower limit; arccos′(x)
27:26
Pointwise convergence: definition and examples
37:21
Uniform convergence; uniform implies pointwise
41:22
Counterexample: xn on [0,1] is not uniformly convergent
49:48
Weierstrass M-test and its proof
1:05:44
Application: ∑xn/n! converges uniformly on [−L,L]
1:11:17
Power series, radius of convergence, uniform convergence on compact subintervals
Arc length: the definition and its justification
Let
γ(s)=(f(s),g(s)),s∈[a,b],
be a plane curve with f,g differentiable and derivatives continuous. Its arc length is defined as
L=∫abf′(s)2+g′(s)2ds.
Why this is reasonable. Take a partition a=s0<s1<⋯<sn=b. The curve splits into small pieces; the i-th piece runs from γ(si−1) to γ(si). Approximate its length by the chord:
Summing over i produces a Riemann sum. Since f′,g′ are continuous on a compact interval, they are uniformly continuous; for a fine enough partition, ξi and ηi lie in the same small piece, and the factor f′(ξi)2+g′(ηi)2 differs from f′(s)2+g′(s)2 by a uniformly small amount on that piece. Hence the Riemann sums converge to
∫abf′(s)2+g′(s)2ds.
So the formula comes from cutting the curve into pieces, replacing arcs by chords, and passing to the limit. The rigorous step uses uniform continuity — exactly the mechanism behind integrability of continuous functions.
Example 1: a parabolic arc
Take
γ(s)=(s,s2),s∈[0,1].
Then f′=1 and g′=2s, so
L=∫011+4s2ds.
The integral can be evaluated by substituting 2s=sinht or 2s=tanθ; the lecture only asks for the integral. The point is that the arc length formula turns a geometric question into a definite integral.
Example 2: the unit circle and arccos
The upper half of the unit circle x2+y2=1 can be parametrized by
γ(s)=(s,1−s2),s∈[−1,1].
Here f(s)=s and g(s)=1−s2. Differentiating,
f′(s)=1,g′(s)=21−s21⋅(−2s)=−1−s2s.
Hence
f′(s)2+g′(s)2=1+1−s2s2=1−s21−s2+s2=1−s21.
So the arc length element of the circle is 1−s2ds.
Take the point on the circle with horizontal coordinate x and walk along the circle to (1,0); call the arc length θ. Since s is the horizontal coordinate, s runs from x to 1:
θ=∫x11−s2ds.
Geometrically θ is the central angle subtended by this arc, and the horizontal coordinate is x=cosθ. Hence θ=arccosx, giving
arccosx=∫x11−s2ds
The formula is not memorized; it follows from "angle equals arc length" combined with the arc length formula.
The derivative of arccos comes for free
The variable is in the lower limit. Rewrite using additivity:
∫x11−s2ds=∫011−s2ds−∫0x1−s2ds.
The first term is constant, with derivative zero; the second has derivative equal to the integrand at x by the fundamental theorem. Therefore
dxdarccosx=0−1−x21=−1−x21.
The lecture emphasizes the sign: when the variable sits in the lower limit, a minus sign appears, because ∫x1=−∫1x.
Pointwise convergence
Let I be an interval, (fn) a sequence of functions on I, and f a function on I. Say fn→fpointwise if for every fixed x∈I,
n→∞limfn(x)=f(x).
In ε language: for every x∈I and every ε>0 there is N such that n>N implies ∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<ε. The N may depend on x.
Example 1. On [0,1] let fn(x)=xn and
f(x)={0,1,0≤x<1,x=1.
For fixed x<1, xn→0; for x=1, 1n=1. So fn→f pointwise. Every fn is continuous, but the limit f is not — pointwise convergence does not preserve continuity.
Example 2. On R let
fn(x)=k=0∑nk!xk.
For each fixed x these are partial sums of the exponential series, converging to ex. So fn→ex pointwise.
Uniform convergence
Say fn→funiformly if for every ε>0 there is N such that
n>N⟹∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<εfor all x∈I.
The only change: the same N must work for every x.
Proof. Given x and ε, take the N from the uniform definition. It works for all x, in particular for this one, so n>N gives ∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<ε. That is pointwise convergence (with the extra information that N does not depend on x). □
The converse fails; the next example shows it.
Counterexample: xn on [0,1]
Figure:Pointwise vs. uniform quantifiers, and why xⁿ cannot enter the ε-band。
As above, fn(x)=xn→f pointwise, where f(1)=1 and f(x)=0 for x<1. But the convergence is not uniform.
Proof. Each fn is continuous, with fn(0)=0 and fn(1)=1. By the intermediate value theorem there is xn∈(0,1) with
fn(xn)=xnn=21
(explicitly xn=(1/2)1/n, and xn→1). Since xn<1, f(xn)=0, so
∣fn(xn)−f(xn)∣=21.
Take ε=41. If convergence were uniform, some N would make ∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<41 for allx whenever n>N. But at x=xn the gap is 21>41, a contradiction. □
Geometrically, every fn climbs from 0 to 1 and must pass through 21; that "half-height point" moves right toward 1 as n grows. The limit function is 0 there, so the error stays at 21 no matter how large n is. Pointwise convergence only promises that each fixed point eventually becomes accurate; it does not promise that the whole interval becomes accurate at once.
This also explains why the limit of xn is discontinuous: uniformity is exactly what would let continuity pass to the limit.
The Weierstrass M-test
Theorem. Let (fn) be a sequence of functions on an interval I, and suppose there are nonnegative numbers Mn with
∣fn(x)∣≤Mnfor all x∈I,
and ∑n=0∞Mn<∞. Then ∑n=0∞fn(x) converges uniformly on I.
Since ∑Mk converges, for every ε>0 there is N such that m≥N implies the tail is below ε.
Step 1: pointwise convergence. For each fixed x, the inequality says (Sn(x)) is Cauchy, hence convergent; call the limit S(x). This defines a function S.
Step 2: upgrade to uniformity. In
∣Sn(x)−Sm(x)∣≤k=m+1∑∞Mk,
let n→∞ (the left side tends to ∣S(x)−Sm(x)∣):
∣S(x)−Sm(x)∣≤k=m+1∑∞Mk<ε(m≥N).
The right side is independent of x and the inequality holds for allx. That is precisely uniform convergence of Sm→S. □
The last step is the heart: the tail bound carries no x. That is the purpose of the "M" — a sequence of numbers, independent of x, controls the tails of a whole family of functions.
Application: the exponential series
On [−L,L] consider
fn(x)=n!xn.
Take
Mn=n!Ln.
For ∣x∣≤L,
∣fn(x)∣=n!∣x∣n≤n!Ln=Mn.
The series ∑Ln/n! converges (ratio test: consecutive ratios are L/(n+1)→0). By the M-test,
n=0∑∞n!xn
converges uniformly on [−L,L] to ex. Since L is arbitrary, it converges uniformly on every bounded interval — but not on all of R, for reasons the next lecture makes precise.
Power series and uniform convergence on compact subintervals
Let
n=0∑∞anxn
be a power series and set
M=n→∞limsup∣an∣1/n,R=M1,
with the conventions M=0⇒R=∞ and M=∞⇒R=0. The number R is the radius of convergence.
Known facts:
the series converges absolutely for ∣x∣<R;
it diverges for ∣x∣>R;
at ∣x∣=R each endpoint must be checked separately; there is no general rule.
Theorem. If 0<L<R, then ∑anxn converges uniformly on [−L,L].
Proof. For ∣x∣≤L,
∣anxn∣≤∣an∣Ln.
Since M=limsup∣an∣1/n=1/R,
n→∞limsup(∣an∣Ln)1/n=ML=RL<1.
The root test gives convergence of ∑∣an∣Ln. With Mn=∣an∣Ln, the M-test yields uniform convergence on [−L,L]. □
The hypothesis L<R is strict. At the endpoints ±R convergence may or may not hold, and uniformity generally fails. For instance ∑xn has radius 1; it converges uniformly on [−L,L] for every L<1, but not on [0,1) — the same phenomenon as the xn counterexample.
The lecture notes that uniformity matters because it permits term-by-term integration and differentiation: if fn→f uniformly, then
n→∞lim∫abfn=∫abf,
and under suitable extra hypotheses also limfn′=f′. That is the subject of the next lecture.
What this lecture establishes
Arc length is ∫abf′2+g′2ds, justified by cutting the curve, using chords, and passing to the limit; the rigorous step needs uniform continuity of the derivatives.
The unit circle gives arccosx=∫x11−s2ds, and the fundamental theorem gives arccos′(x)=−1−x21.
Pointwise convergence: each fixed x converges, with N allowed to depend on x.
Uniform convergence: one N for all x; it implies pointwise convergence.
xn on [0,1] converges pointwise to a discontinuous function but not uniformly; the half-height points xn=(1/2)1/n keep the error at 1/2.
Weierstrass M-test: if ∣fn∣≤Mn and ∑Mn<∞, then ∑fn converges uniformly.
∑xn/n! converges uniformly on every [−L,L]; a power series converges uniformly on [−L,L] when L<R, with endpoints needing separate treatment.
Comprehension check
1. Explain why the arc length formula is reasonable, and state what is needed to turn "sum of chord lengths" into an integral.
Reference answer: For a partition a=s0<⋯<sn=b, the i-th piece is approximated by its chord:
∣γ(si)−γ(si−1)∣=f′(ξi)2+g′(ηi)2Δsi,
where ξi,ηi come from the mean value theorem and lie in the same small piece. Summing gives a Riemann sum. For it to converge to ∫f′2+g′2ds, the factor f′2+g′2 must vary by a uniformly small amount across each piece, i.e. it must be uniformly continuous on [a,b]; this holds because f′ and g′ are continuous on a compact interval. Without compactness, convergence of the chord sums is not guaranteed.
2. Compute the arc length element of the upper unit circle and derive the integral representation and derivative of arccos.
Reference answer: With f′=1 and g′=−s/1−s2,
f′2+g′2=1+1−s2s2=1−s21,
so the element is ds/1−s2. The arc from horizontal coordinate x to 1 has length θ=∫x1ds/1−s2; geometrically x=cosθ, hence θ=arccosx. For the derivative, write the integral as ∫01−∫0x: the first term is constant, the second differentiates to 1/1−x2 by the fundamental theorem, so arccos′(x)=−1/1−x2. The minus sign comes from the variable in the lower limit.
3. Prove that fn(x)=xn converges pointwise but not uniformly on [0,1].
Reference answer: Pointwise, xn→0 for fixed x<1 and xn=1 for x=1, so the limit is f(x)=0 for x<1 and f(1)=1. For non-uniformity, each fn is continuous with fn(0)=0<21<1=fn(1), so the intermediate value theorem gives xn∈(0,1) with xnn=21. Then f(xn)=0, so ∣fn(xn)−f(xn)∣=21. Taking ε=41, after any N such an xn still violates the uniform bound, so no single N works. Intuitively, the half-height point xn=(1/2)1/n tends to 1 and the error stays at 21.
4. Prove that uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, and contrast the two N's.
Reference answer: Given x∈I and ε>0, take N from the uniform definition; it depends only on ε and works for every x, hence for this x, so n>N gives ∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<ε. The difference is that uniform convergence has N=N(ε), while pointwise convergence allows N=N(ε,x). In the xn example, xn<ε requires n>logε/logx, and the required n blows up as x→1, so no uniform N exists.
5. State and prove the Weierstrass M-test.
Reference answer: Suppose ∣fn(x)∣≤Mn for all x∈I and ∑Mn<∞. With Sn=∑k=0nfk, for n>m,
Since ∑Mk converges, for every ε>0 there is N with tail below ε once m≥N. For each fixed x, (Sn(x)) is Cauchy, hence converges; call the limit S(x). Letting n→∞ in the inequality gives ∣S(x)−Sm(x)∣≤∑k=m+1∞Mk<ε for all x, with a right side independent of x; this is uniform convergence.
6. Use the M-test to show ∑xn/n! converges uniformly on [−L,L], and explain uniform convergence of a power series on [−L,L] with L<R.
Reference answer: On [−L,L], ∣xn/n!∣≤Ln/n!, and ∑Ln/n! converges (ratio test, ratios L/(n+1)→0), so the M-test applies. For ∑anxn with L<R=1/M and M=limsup∣an∣1/n, we have ∣anxn∣≤∣an∣Ln and
limsup(∣an∣Ln)1/n=ML=L/R<1,
so the root test gives convergence of ∑∣an∣Ln, and the M-test gives uniformity. The inequality L<R must be strict: at the endpoints the series may converge but uniformity generally fails, as with ∑xn on [0,1).
Relation to neighbouring lectures
Arc length applies the integral to geometry, while the arccos representation shows another use of the fundamental theorem: define a function geometrically, then differentiate to identify its derivative. This is the reverse of "state a formula, then verify it", and it is the more common construction in analysis.
The second half prepares the next lecture. With the M-test, power series converge uniformly on compact subintervals of the interval of convergence; uniform convergence is precisely the hypothesis needed for term-by-term integration and differentiation. The next lecture proves that uniformly convergent sequences may be integrated term by term, and that derivatives may also be exchanged under an additional uniform convergence hypothesis on the derivatives. Those results turn the technical conditions here into working rules.